Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Telling the child how important it is to drink fluids
B. Telling the child how important it is to drink fluids
C. Providing soup on the lunch and dinner meals
D. Offering flavored ice pops or iced Slurpees
A child will likely accept the fluids in this answer better than the others listed. The child is too young to understand the statement in answer A, so it is inappropriate. Answers B and C are good sources of fluids but would not be best or acceptable for a 3-year-old, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The client who is 40 weeks gestation having contractions every 5 minutes lasting 50 seconds
B. The client who is 32 weeks gestation with terbutaline (Brethine) intravenously
C. The one-day postpartum client who has changed two peri-pads in the last 6 hours
D. The diabetic obstetric client with a blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL
The client who is 32 weeks gestation receiving Brethrine is unstable and requires further nursing assessment. Answer A is incorrect because the client who is 40 weeks gestation having contractions every 5 minutes lasting 50 seconds is normal. Answer C is incorrect because changing two peripads in the last 6 hours is normal; therefore, it is not highest priority. Answer D is incorrect because a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is within normal limits.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Urinary output
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Verbal responsiveness
Answer B is correct. Barbiturate overdose results in central nervous system depression, which leads to respiratory failure. Answers A and C are important to the client’s overall condition but are not specific to the question, so they are incorrect. The use of barbiturates results in slow, slurred speech, so answer D is expected, and therefore incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Bowel sound auscultation
B. Pupillary response to light
C. Assessing for hematuria
D. Cranial nerve 8 assessment
The pelvis is close to major organs and the nurse needs to assess for damage to associated organs. The bladder could have been damaged and hematuria assessment would be a priority. Answers A, B, and D are important assessments, but are not the priority, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Sickledex
B. Hemoglobin electrophoresis
C. Partial thromboplastin time
D. Complete blood count
Hemoglobin electrophoresis is the test that verifies the diagnosis of sickle cell and is the most accurate because it separates the different hemoglobins. Answer A is a screening tool that lacks the accuracy of electrophoresis, so it is incorrect. The answers in C and D are not directly related to sickle cell, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Amenorrhea
B. Headache
C. Blurred vision
D. Weight loss
Prolactinoma tumors are tumors arising from hyperplasia of the pituitary gland that are prolactin hormone–based. Amenorrhea and anovulation are associated with prolactinomas because the pituitary gland assists with stimulation of the ovaries and ovulation, so answer A is correct. Because the pituitary is located in the center of the skull, adjacent to the brain, answers B and C are associated with increased intracranial pressure. Answer D is incorrect because weight gain can occur, not weight loss.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. After a shower or bath
B. While standing to void
C. After having a bowel movement
D. While lying in bed before arising
The nurse needs to teach the client how to perform a TSE. The nurse should instruct the client to perform the exam on the same day each month. The nurse should also instruct the client that the best time to perform a TSE is after a shower or bath when the hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Palpation is easier and the client will be better able to identify any abnormalities. The client would stand to perform the exam, but it would be difficult to perform the exam while voiding. Having a bowel movement is unrelated to performing a TSE.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Continue to monitor the vital signs
B. Contact the physician
C. Ask the client how he feels
D. Ask the LPN to continue the postop care
The vital signs are abnormal and should be reported immediately. Continuing to monitor the vital signs can result in deterioration of the client’s condition, so answer A is incorrect. Asking the client how he feels would supply only subjective data, so answer C is incorrect. The LPN is not the best nurse to be assigned to this client because he is unstable, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver
B. Elevate the tubing above the client’s chest level
C. Decrease the amount of suction being applied
D. Form a water seal and obtain a new connector
The nurse should form a water seal, remove the contaminated end, and insert a new sterile connector. The Valsalva maneuver is used when the chest tube is being removed, therefore Answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the chest drainage system is maintained below the client’s chest level. Answer C is incorrect because the nurse cannot alter the amount of suction being applied without a doctor’s order.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. 2–4 mm
B. 3–5 mm
C. 6–8 mm
D. 7–9 mm
The normal pupil diameter is between 3 and 5 mm in size. Answers A, C, and D are not normal pupil diameters; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Vancomycin (Vancocin) IV
B. Ampicillin (Omnipen) PO
C. Ceftriazone (Rocephin) IM
D. Cefotaxime sodium (Claforan)
Vancomycin IV would be the antibiotic of choice for resistant strands of meningitis. The client would need the medication to work quickly, making Answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is an antibiotic used for meningitis, but would not be the one of choice for resistant strains of meningitis, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 3-4 days
B. 5-9 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 2-3 weeks
The incubation period (the period of time from exposure to the onset of the first symptoms) is 10 to 14 days. The first symptoms of smallpox infection include an abrupt onset of chills, high fever, headache, backache, severe malaise, vomiting, possible delirium, stupor and coma
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Day hall supervision
B. Constant supervision
C. Checks every 15 minutes
D. One-on-one night supervision
The client admitted with suicidal thoughts or suicidal gestures is best cared for by constant supervision. Answers A, C, and D do not provide for continual observations to ensure the client’s safety; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (240mL / 1/3) – 240mL = (240mL x 3) – 240mL = 720mL – 240mL = 480mL
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Increase her intake of milk and dairy products.
B. Avoid taking bubble baths
C. Use underwear made from nylon
D. Drink orange juice for breakfast
The nurse should tell the client to avoid tub baths as well as bubble baths. The client should be instructed to wear cotton underwear and to avoid tight-fitting clothing such as jeans. Answers A, C, and D do not decrease the incidence of cystitis; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Culture
B. VDRL
C. RPR
D. FTA-ABS
The fluorescent treponemal antibody test (FTA-ABS) is most diagnostic for syphilis. Answer A is incorrect because a culture of the discharge is used to diagnose gonorrhea, not syphilis. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are screening tests and are not as diagnostic as the FTA-ABS is.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Fractures of the ribs
B. Contusions of the lower legs
C. Fractures of the humerus
D. Lacerations of the face
Fractures of the ribs can result in a closed pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency, that requires early detection and treatment. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pose a risk to the life of the client.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Change 1 g to milligrams, knowing that 1000 mg =1 g.
Also, when converting from grams to milligrams (larger to smaller), move the decimal point three places to the right: 1 g = 1000 mg.
Next, use the formula for calculating the correct dose.
Formula: Desired / Available x Tablet = 1000 mg / 500 mg = 2 tablets
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. The client rigidly extends the arms with pronated forearms and plantar flexion of the feet
B. The client flexes a leg at the hip and knee and reports pain in the vertebral column when the leg is extended
C. The client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column.
D. The client’s upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated.
Brudzinski’s sign is tested with the client in the supine position. The nurse flexes the client’s head (gently moves the head to the chest), and there should be no reports of pain or resistance to the neck flexion. A positive Brudzinski’s sign is observed if the client passively flexes the hip and knee in response to neck flexion and reports pain in the vertebral column. Kernig’s sign also tests for meningeal irritation and is positive when the client flexes the legs at the hip and knee and complains of pain along the vertebral column when the leg is extended. Decorticate posturing is abnormal flexion and is noted when the client’s upper arms are flexed and held tightly to the sides of the body and the legs are extended and internally rotated. Decerebrate posturing is abnormal extension and occurs when the arms are fully extended, forearms pronated, wrists and fingers flexed, jaws clenched, neck extended, and feet plantar-flexed
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
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