Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Kernig’s
B. Chadwick
C. McBurney’s
D. Chvostek’s
The test for Chvostek’s sign is performed by tapping the facial nerve (C7) and the trigeminal nerve (C5) and observing for grimacing. Answer A is incorrect because Kernig’s sign is nuchal (neck) rigidity associated with meningitis. Answer B is incorrect because Chadwick’s sign is a bluish vagina associated with hormonal changes. Answer C is incorrect because McBurney’s sign is rebound tenderness associated with appendicitis.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (480mL / ½) – 480mL = (480mL x 2) – 480mL = 960mL – 480mL = 480mL
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Assess for allergy to iodine
B. Check pulses proximal to the site
C. Assess the urinary output
D. Check to ensure that the client has a consent form signed
The dye used in the procedure can cause a decrease in renal function. The client’s renal function should be assessed and changes reported to the doctor immediately. Answer A is incorrect because the client’s allergies should be checked prior to the procedure, not after the procedure. The femoral artery is commonly used as the site for a catheterization. Answer B is incorrect because the pulses should be checked distal to the site. Answer D is incorrect because the permit should be signed prior to the procedure.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
The client who is taking lithium needs an adequate intake of sodium and fluid to prevent the development of lithium toxicity. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Hypericum
B. Angelica
C. Chamomile
D. Echinacea
Clients taking antidepressant medication should avoid herbal preparations containing hypericum (St. John’s wort) unless directed by the physician. Answers B, C, and D do not specifically apply to the client taking prescription antidepressants; therefore, they are incorrect. Note: The client taking any prescription medication should check with the physician before using herbals or dietary supplements.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Bleeding into the joints
B. Cutaneous bleeding
C. Bleeding into the oral cavity
D. Intracranial bleeding
The greatest danger from bleeding in the child with hemophilia is intracranial bleeding. The situations in Answers A, B, and C do not pose the greatest danger from bleeding; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Vancomycin (Vancocin) IV
B. Ampicillin (Omnipen) PO
C. Ceftriazone (Rocephin) IM
D. Cefotaxime sodium (Claforan)
Vancomycin IV would be the antibiotic of choice for resistant strands of meningitis. The client would need the medication to work quickly, making Answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is an antibiotic used for meningitis, but would not be the one of choice for resistant strains of meningitis, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Call the doctor
B. Stop the IV infusion of Vancomycin
C. Administer Benadryl as ordered
D. Take the vital signs
All are important however, the initial step is to stop the cause of the allergy.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Breath sounds
B. Deep tendon reflexes
C. Blood pressure
D. Bowel sounds
The patient is exhibiting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. The hypertension can be severe and requires treatment; therefore, this assessment is essential. The assessments in Answers A, B, and D might all be done, but C is the priority, so the others are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Contractions every 5–6 minutes lasting 60 seconds
B. Variability of 6–8 beats per minute
C. Drops in fetal heart tones after contractions lasting 90 seconds with hesitant return to baseline
D. Drops in fetal heart tones prior to the contractions during pushing
This describes a late deceleration. These decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and require intervention by the nurse. The treatment is STOP (Stop Pitocin if infusing; Turn the client to her side; begin Oxygen therapy; Prepare for delivery). Increasing IV fluids helps to increase blood to the uterus. Answer A is within normal limits. Answer B is also within normal limits. Answer D is incorrect because a drop in fetal heart tones prior to the contraction describes an early deceleration caused by head compression. This is expected during pushing.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Deferoxamine
C. Calcium disodium acetate
D. British anti-lewisite
Deferoxamine is the antidote for iron poisoning. Answer A is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose, making it wrong. Answers C and D are antidotes for lead poisoning, so they are wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Should be protected from light
B. Is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic
C. Causes vasoconstriction
D. Decreases circulation to the extremities
Nitroglycerine preparations should be protected from light because light decreases the effectiveness of this category of medication. Answer B is incorrect because Nitropress is not a diuretic. Answer C is incorrect because Nitropress is a vasodilator, not a vasoconstrictor. Answer D is incorrect because nitroglycerine does not decrease circulation to the extremities.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 3-4 days
B. 5-9 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 2-3 weeks
The incubation period (the period of time from exposure to the onset of the first symptoms) is 10 to 14 days. The first symptoms of smallpox infection include an abrupt onset of chills, high fever, headache, backache, severe malaise, vomiting, possible delirium, stupor and coma
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Surgical ANTT
B. Standard ANTT
C. Sterile ANTT
D. Clean procedure
Simple procedures requiring asepsis will require Standard ANTT. These procedures include simple wound dressings, IV medication preparation and administration, removal of surgical drains, and changing of IV fluids.
Surgical ANTT is for invasive procedures such as IV cannulation and Urinary catheterization
Clean procedures are for non-invasive, non-sterile skills such as NGT insertion or colostomy care.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Schedule frequent eye exams
B. Expect red discoloration of his urine
C. Increase his fluid intake
D. Expect dizziness and ringing in his ears
The use of pyrazinamide can result in gout-like symptoms; therefore, the client should increase his fluid intake. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are associated with other antitubercular medications.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Call for help.
B. Extinguish the fire.
C. Activate the fire alarm.
D. Confine the fire by closing the room door.
The order of priority in the event of a fire is to rescue the clients who are in immediate danger. The next step is to activate the fire alarm. The fire then is confined by closing all doors and, finally, the fire is extinguished.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Check the client’s temperature.
B. Isolate the client in a private room.
C. Check a complete set of vital signs
D. Contact the primary health care provider.
The nurse should suspect the potential for Ebola virus disease (EVD) because of the client’s recent travel to Nigeria. The nurse needs to consider the symptoms that the client is reporting, and clients who meet the exposure criteria should be isolated in a private room before other treatment measures are taken. Exposure criteria include a fever reported at home or in the ED of 38.0° C (100.4° F) or headache, fatigue, weakness, muscle pain, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or signs of bleeding.
This client is reporting a fever and is showing other signs of EVD, and therefore should be isolated. After isolating the client, it would be acceptable to then collect further data and notify the primary health care provider and other state and local authorities of the client’s signs and symptoms
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Take half the dose to control the problem
B. Take cough medication to control the problem
C. Stop the medication
D. Report the problem to the doctor
A hacking cough is a common side effect and should be reported to the doctor. The client should not be told to half the dose because this can result in an elevated blood pressure, so answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because taking a cough medication will mask the symptom of a possible allergic reaction. Answer C is incorrect because, although the client stops taking the medication, this answer states that the client can report the finding to the doctor at the time of the scheduled visit. She should report this finding immediately.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Constriction of blood flow
B. Immobilization of the joint
C. Formation of a decubitus ulcer
D. Oozing of blood from the wound
Wrapping an elastic bandage on a stump using the circular technique can cause the wrap to act as a tourniquet and restrict blood flow, so a figure eight technique is utilized to prevent this from occurring. Answers B, C, and D are not the primary reasons for use of the figure eight technique, so they are incorrect.
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