Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. 2–4 mm
B. 3–5 mm
C. 6–8 mm
D. 7–9 mm
The normal pupil diameter is between 3 and 5 mm in size. Answers A, C, and D are not normal pupil diameters; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Rebound tenderness
B. Rovsing’s sign
C. Turner’s sign
D. Ascites
Rebound tenderness indicates peritoneal irritation. The client experiences increased pain when the examiner releases pressure in a positive result of this assessment technique. Answers B and C are exhibited by other assessment measures, so they are incorrect. Answer D is a condition of excessive peritoneal fluid in the abdominal cavity associated with liver disorders.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Severe headache
B. Slight nausea
C. Decreased urination
D. Itching
A severe headache can indicate impending seizure activity. Slight nausea is expected when beginning the therapy, so answer B is incorrect. A client with renal failure already has itching and decreased urination, so answers C and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Kernig’s
B. Chadwick
C. McBurney’s
D. Chvostek’s
The test for Chvostek’s sign is performed by tapping the facial nerve (C7) and the trigeminal nerve (C5) and observing for grimacing. Answer A is incorrect because Kernig’s sign is nuchal (neck) rigidity associated with meningitis. Answer B is incorrect because Chadwick’s sign is a bluish vagina associated with hormonal changes. Answer C is incorrect because McBurney’s sign is rebound tenderness associated with appendicitis.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 3-4 days
B. 5-9 days
C. 10-14 days
D. 2-3 weeks
The incubation period (the period of time from exposure to the onset of the first symptoms) is 10 to 14 days. The first symptoms of smallpox infection include an abrupt onset of chills, high fever, headache, backache, severe malaise, vomiting, possible delirium, stupor and coma
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. LDH
B. Troponin
C. Creatinine
D. AST
The best diagnostic tool for confirming that the client has experienced a myocardial infarction is the troponin level. Another lab value associated with a myocardial infarction is the CKMB. Answer A is incorrect because the LDH is also elevated in clients with muscle trauma not associated with an MI. Answer C is incorrect because the creatinine level indicates renal function. Answer D is incorrect because the AST level is elevated with gallbladder and liver disease as well as muscle inflammation.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Vancomycin (Vancocin) IV
B. Ampicillin (Omnipen) PO
C. Ceftriazone (Rocephin) IM
D. Cefotaxime sodium (Claforan)
Vancomycin IV would be the antibiotic of choice for resistant strands of meningitis. The client would need the medication to work quickly, making Answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is an antibiotic used for meningitis, but would not be the one of choice for resistant strains of meningitis, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Leg cramps
B. Hot flashes
C. Urinary frequency
D. Cold extremities
This drug is in the same category as the chemotherapeutic agent tamoxifene (Novaldex) used for breast cancer. In the case of Evista, this drug is used to treat osteoporosis. Notice that the E stands for estrogen. This drug has an agonist effect, so it binds with estrogen and can cause hot flashes. This drug does not cause leg cramps, urinary frequency, or cold extremities, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. CSF protein elevation with a normal cell count
B. WBC count of 2800 mm
C. Abnormal liver function test
D. Abnormal electromyographic (EMG) studies
This is the most definitive diagnostic result. The client would experience an elevated white blood cell count, which makes Answer B incorrect. Answers C and D can occur with many diagnoses, so they are not specific for Guillain-Barrè and are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Risedronate (Actonel)
B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
C. Ibandronate (Boniva)
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
Evista should not be given to clients with liver disease because it can make the condition worse. Answers A, B, and C are not contraindicated in liver disease clients, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A, Option B, Option C
A. Ingestion of contaminated undercooked meat or deer flies
B. Inhalation of bacterial spores
C. Through a cut or abrasion in the skin
D. Direct contact with an infected individual
Answer: A,B,C
Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis and can be contracted through the digestive system or abrasions in the skin, or inhaled through the lungs. It cannot be spread from person to person, and it is not contracted via bites from ticks or deer flies.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Instruct the aggressive patient to help you with ambulating the bedridden patient
B. Instruct the ambulant patient to assist the 78-year-old in the evacuation process while you seek help in evacuating the bedridden patient
C. Call the switchboard for help in the evacuation
D. Tell everyone the building is on fire and that all take the fire exit
Ambulant patients can assist semi ambulant patients in case of emergency. Take the full dependent and aggressive patients last. There is no point in asking the switchboard as the alarm has been activated. The fire warden is in charge of instructing all people in the building, no the nurse.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. “I need to avoid certain foods and drinks to prevent an increase in blood pressure.”
B. “I will schedule an appointment each month to have my blood level checked.”
C. “I will use hard candy or gum to keep my mouth from feeling too dry.”
D. “I will need to take my medicine before meals to improve its effect.”
Dry mouth is a common side effect of antidepressant medications. Using hard candy or gum helps to prevent mouth dryness. Answer A is incorrect because it refers to treatment with MAOI. Answer B is incorrect because it refers to treatment with lithium. Answer D is incorrect because taking the medication with food enhances the absorption rate of the medication.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Constipation
B. White blood cell count of 14,000
C. Amylase of 460
D. Potassium of 3.1 mEq/L
Amylase and lipase are reliable tests used for pancreatitis diagnosis. The answers in A, B, and D are not directly related to the pancreas and not diagnostic, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. No need for any medical treatment for radiation exposure
B. Have damage to the bones, kidneys, liver, and thyroid
C. Experience only erythema and desquamation
D. Not be radioactive because the radiation passes through the body
The client with incorporation radiation injuries requires immediate medical treatment. Most of the damage occurs to the bones, kidneys, liver, and thyroid. Answers A, C, and D refer to external irradiation, so they are wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Place a tourniquet proximal to the laceration
B. Elevate the leg above the level of the heart
C. Cover the laceration and apply an ice compress
D. Apply pressure to the femoral artery
If bleeding does not subside with direct pressure, the nurse should elevate the extremity above the level of the heart. Answers A and D are done only if other measures are ineffective, so they are incorrect. Answer C would slow the bleeding, but will not stop it, so it’s incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Magnetic resonance imaging
B. Ultrasonography
C. Noncontrast helical computerized tomography
D. X-ray of the kidneys, ureter, and bladder
Noncontrast helical computerized tomography is the most sensitive means for diagnosing renal calculi. Magnetic resonance imaging, ultrasonography, and x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder are not as sensitive; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Lub-dub sounds
B. Scratchy, leathery heart noise
C. A blowing or swooshing noise
D. Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise
A heart murmur is an abnormal heart sound and is described as a faint or loud blowing, swooshing sound with a high, medium, or low pitch. Lub-dub sounds are normal and represent the S1 (first) heart sound and S2 (second) heart sound, respectively. A pericardial friction rub is described as a scratchy, leathery heart sound. A click is described as an abrupt, high-pitched snapping sound.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Walk 20 minutes a day to maintain muscle strength
B. Expect a reddish discoloration of her urine
C. Notify the doctor of a sore throat or fever
D. Eat smaller, more frequent meals
Cytoxan is an immunosuppressive drug; therefore, the client should notify the doctor of symptoms associated with infection. Answers A and D are not associated with the use of Cytoxan; therefore, they are incorrect. The client taking Cytoxan can experience hemorrhagic cystitis due to inadequate fluid intake, but it is not an expected finding; therefore, answer B is incorrect.
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