Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Propylthiouracil (PTU)
B. Fludrocortisone (Florinef)
C. Levothyroxine (Synthyroid)
D. Glipizide (Glucotrol)
Propylthiouracil (PTU) is an antithyroid medication. Answer B is incorrect because this is a cortisone preparation. Answer C is incorrect because this drug is used for hypothyroidism. Answer D is incorrect because this drug is used to treat diabetes.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Chloride level
B. Potassium transport
C. Serum sodium
D. Calcium level
A positive sweat test is reflected by elevations in the chloride level. Answers B, C, and D are not measured by the sweat test; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Control HCO3 levels
B. Retain or blow off CO2
C. Regulate potassium levels
D. Maintain sodium levels
The lungs assist in the control of acid/base balance by regulating the amount of CO2 that is retained or exhaled. The lungs are not in control of HCO3, potassium, or sodium; therefore, Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Stabilize clots in the vascular system
B. Decrease the chance of a blood reaction
C. Eliminate iron excess
D. Boost oxygen delivery to the cells
A chelating agent such as deferoxamine (Desferal) is given to eliminate excess iron. The answers in A, B, and D are not the action of chelating agents, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (480mL / ½) – 480mL = (480mL x 2) – 480mL = 960mL – 480mL = 480mL
The Correct Answer is Option C
Partial seizures usually originate in the temporal lobe, making Answers A, B, and D incorrect because partial seizures do not usually occur in the other lobes.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Assess for allergy to iodine
B. Check pulses proximal to the site
C. Assess the urinary output
D. Check to ensure that the client has a consent form signed
The dye used in the procedure can cause a decrease in renal function. The client’s renal function should be assessed and changes reported to the doctor immediately. Answer A is incorrect because the client’s allergies should be checked prior to the procedure, not after the procedure. The femoral artery is commonly used as the site for a catheterization. Answer B is incorrect because the pulses should be checked distal to the site. Answer D is incorrect because the permit should be signed prior to the procedure.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. LDH
B. Troponin
C. Creatinine
D. AST
The best diagnostic tool for confirming that the client has experienced a myocardial infarction is the troponin level. Another lab value associated with a myocardial infarction is the CKMB. Answer A is incorrect because the LDH is also elevated in clients with muscle trauma not associated with an MI. Answer C is incorrect because the creatinine level indicates renal function. Answer D is incorrect because the AST level is elevated with gallbladder and liver disease as well as muscle inflammation.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Negligence
B. Tort
C. Assault
D. Malpractice
Assault is defined as striking or touching the client inappropriately. Negligence is failing to perform care for the client, so answer A is incorrect. A tort is a wrongful act committed on the client or his belongings, so answer B is incorrect. Malpractice is failing to perform an act that the nurse knows should be done or doing something wrong that causes harm to the client, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Begin an IV of normal saline at keep-open rate
B. Continue the magnesium sulfate as ordered
C. Contact the doctor immediately
D. Prepare for an emergency delivery
The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate is 4.0–9.6 meq/L; therefore, with a magnesium level of 6.3meq/L, the nurse should continue the infusion. Answers A, C, and D indicate that the nurse believes the level to be toxic. This is an incorrect conclusion, making these answers incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Taking supplements of B3
B. Increasing sodium intake
C. Eating a diet high in calcium
D. Drinking additional fluids
Taking supplements of B3 (niacin) helps to improve the symptoms associated with Ménière’s disease. Answer B is incorrect because the client needs to limit sodium intake. The client with Ménière’s does not need additional sources of calcium; therefore, answer C is incorrect. Ménière’s is not improved by increasing fluid intake; therefore, answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Aplastic
B. Vaso-occlusive
C. Splenic sequestration
D. Erythropoiesis
Erythropoiesis is the formation of RBCs not related to sickle cell crisis. The answers in A, B, and C are types of sickle cell anemia crises, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. TSH levels (thyroid-stimulating hormone levels)
B. AST levels (aspartate aminotransferase levels)
C. HCG levels (human gonaditropin levels)
D. LDH levels (lactic dehyrogenase levels)
Liver enzymes such as AST should be assessed along with renal function (creatinine levels) and cardiac function. Answer A is not correct because this medication does not alter thyroid function. Answer C is not correct because HCG levels are not affected by rosiglitazone (Avandia). This hormone is associated with pregnancy. Answer D is incorrect because an elevated LDH is associated with muscle trauma. It is, however, elevated in a myocardial infarction.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Check the client’s temperature.
B. Isolate the client in a private room.
C. Check a complete set of vital signs
D. Contact the primary health care provider.
The nurse should suspect the potential for Ebola virus disease (EVD) because of the client’s recent travel to Nigeria. The nurse needs to consider the symptoms that the client is reporting, and clients who meet the exposure criteria should be isolated in a private room before other treatment measures are taken. Exposure criteria include a fever reported at home or in the ED of 38.0° C (100.4° F) or headache, fatigue, weakness, muscle pain, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or signs of bleeding.
This client is reporting a fever and is showing other signs of EVD, and therefore should be isolated. After isolating the client, it would be acceptable to then collect further data and notify the primary health care provider and other state and local authorities of the client’s signs and symptoms
The Correct Answer is Option B
Convert weight from pounds to kilograms (32lbs/2.2lbs) and multiply by required dose (20ml/kg) multiplied by drop factor (10drops/ml) over the required time of 60minutes.
32 lbs x kg x 20mL x 10drops
2.2lbs kg ml
___________________________ = 48.4848485 = 48 drops/minute (rounded off to whole number)
60 minutes
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Metabolic alkalosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Respiratory alkalosis
The client with internal bleeding will most likely have metabolic acidosis. The laboratory findings reflect this suspicion. The pH is down, the PaCO2 is down, and the HCO3 is down. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not consistent with the lab values given in the question.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Parietal lobe
Partial seizures usually originate in the temporal lobe, making Answers A, B, and D incorrect because partial seizures do not usually occur in the other lobes.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Take half the dose to control the problem
B. Take cough medication to control the problem
C. Stop the medication
D. Report the problem to the doctor
A hacking cough is a common side effect and should be reported to the doctor. The client should not be told to half the dose because this can result in an elevated blood pressure, so answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because taking a cough medication will mask the symptom of a possible allergic reaction. Answer C is incorrect because, although the client stops taking the medication, this answer states that the client can report the finding to the doctor at the time of the scheduled visit. She should report this finding immediately.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Clamp the tubing for 15 minutes every hour
B. Irrigate the tubing with normal saline to remove clots
C. Avoid clamping or kinking the tubing
D. Suspend the tubing above the level of the abdomen
The nurse should avoid clamping or kinking the nephrostomy because urine would be retained in the kidney. Answer A is incorrect because the tubing should not be clamped. Answer B is incorrect because the tubing should not be irrigated because it would damage the renal tissue. Answer D is incorrect because suspending the tubing would cause urine to be retained in the kidney.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Cover the cord with dry, sterile gauze
B. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
C. Push up on the presenting part with an examining finger
D. Begin an IV of normal saline at keep-open rate
The nurse should push on the presenting part to relieve pressure on the cord and facilitate blood flow through the cord. Answer A is incorrect because the sterile gauze should be moist, not dry. Answer B is incorrect because the client should be placed in Trendelenburg position, not high Fowler’s position. Answer D is incorrect because the IV fluid should be rapid, not keep-open rate, to increase hydration and blood flow to the fetus.
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