Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Ancef (cefazolin sodium)
B. Cipro (ciprofloxacin)
C. Kantrex (kanamycin)
D. Garamycin (gentamicin)
Cipro (ciprofloxacin) is the drug of choice for treating anthrax. Answers A, C, and D are not used to treat anthrax, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Tracheal deviation toward the affected side
B. Symmetry of the thorax and equal breath sounds
C. Tracheal deviation toward the unaffected side
D. Decreased heart rate and decreased respirations
Assessment of the client with a tension pneumothorax reveals tracheal deviations towards the unaffected side. Answer A is incorrect because the deviation is toward the unaffected, not the affected side. Answer B is incorrect because the thorax is asymmetrical and breath sounds are absent on the affected side. Answer D is incorrect because the heart rate and respiratory rate are not decreased.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Take the medication before arising
B. Force fluids while taking this medication
C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking this medication
D. Take the medication in conjunction with estrogen
Alendronate sodium is a drug used to treat osteoporosis. Let’s use testing strategies for this question. Look at answers A and C; these are opposites. When you are in the bed, you are lying down. The drug should not be given while lying down, nor should it be taken with medication or with estrogen. In answer C, you are upright. This drug causes gastric reflux, so you should remain upright and take it with only water. Notice the clue in the name of the drug: fosa, as in fossils. All the drugs in this category contain the syllable dronate.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Painting
B. Watching television
C. Attending the opera
D. Golfing
Golfing should be avoided by the client following cataract removal because it requires activity that increases intraocular pressure. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not increase intraocular pressure.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Checking the client’s blood sugar
B. Administering intravenous dextrose
C. Intubation and ventilator support
D. Administering regular insulin
The client has symptoms of insulin shock and the first step is to check the client’s blood sugar. If indicated, the client should be treated with intravenous dextrose. Answer B is wrong because it is not the first step the nurse should take. Answer C is wrong because it does not apply to the client’s symptoms. Answer D is wrong because it would be used for diabetic ketoacidosis, not insulin shock.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Inserting a Foley catheter
B. Discontinuing a nasogastric tube
C. Obtaining a sputum specimen
D. Starting a blood transfusion
The LPN can be assigned to insert Foley and French urinary catheters, discontinue Levin and gavage gastric tubes, and obtain all types of specimens. Administering a blood transfusion is outside the scope of practice of an LPN. Another practice outside of an LPN's scope is administering a controlled medication such as Morphine. LPNs can witness the commencement of blood transfusion and witness the administration of controlled medications.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. TSH levels (thyroid-stimulating hormone levels)
B. AST levels (aspartate aminotransferase levels)
C. HCG levels (human gonaditropin levels)
D. LDH levels (lactic dehyrogenase levels)
Liver enzymes such as AST should be assessed along with renal function (creatinine levels) and cardiac function. Answer A is not correct because this medication does not alter thyroid function. Answer C is not correct because HCG levels are not affected by rosiglitazone (Avandia). This hormone is associated with pregnancy. Answer D is incorrect because an elevated LDH is associated with muscle trauma. It is, however, elevated in a myocardial infarction.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. 2–4 mm
B. 3–5 mm
C. 6–8 mm
D. 7–9 mm
The normal pupil diameter is between 3 and 5 mm in size. Answers A, C, and D are not normal pupil diameters; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Call for help immediately and stabilize the clients’ head in the neutral position.
B. Go to the nursing station and call the neurosurgeon immediately.
C. Lower the head of the bed and add more weight to the traction.
D. Turn the client to the left side, raising the knee gatch on the bed.
The priority concern is patient safety and prevention of damage to the spinal cord. Answers B, C, and D are not appropriate actions by the nurse, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Day hall supervision
B. Constant supervision
C. Checks every 15 minutes
D. One-on-one night supervision
The client admitted with suicidal thoughts or suicidal gestures is best cared for by constant supervision. Answers A, C, and D do not provide for continual observations to ensure the client’s safety; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Place a tourniquet proximal to the laceration
B. Elevate the leg above the level of the heart
C. Cover the laceration and apply an ice compress
D. Apply pressure to the femoral artery
If bleeding does not subside with direct pressure, the nurse should elevate the extremity above the level of the heart. Answers A and D are done only if other measures are ineffective, so they are incorrect. Answer C would slow the bleeding, but will not stop it, so it’s incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Increase her intake of milk and dairy products.
B. Avoid taking bubble baths
C. Use underwear made from nylon
D. Drink orange juice for breakfast
The nurse should tell the client to avoid tub baths as well as bubble baths. The client should be instructed to wear cotton underwear and to avoid tight-fitting clothing such as jeans. Answers A, C, and D do not decrease the incidence of cystitis; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Chloride level
B. Potassium transport
C. Serum sodium
D. Calcium level
A positive sweat test is reflected by elevations in the chloride level. Answers B, C, and D are not measured by the sweat test; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Kayexalate (sodium polystyrene sulfonate)
B. K-Dur (potassium chloride)
C. Cephulac (lactulose)
D. PhosLo (calcium acetate)
Kayexalate (sodium polystyrene sulfonate) is administered to lower potassium levels in the client with hyperkalemia. K-Dur is used for the client with hypokalemia; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Lactulose is used to lower ammonia levels in the client with liver disease; therefore, answer C is incorrect. PhosLo is used to lower phosphorus levels in the client with renal disease; therefore, Answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. 10
B. 15
C. 20
D. 25
The normal ICP reading is 10–20. 25 would be increased and abnormal. Answers A, B, and C are all within the normal range, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Bowel sound auscultation
B. Pupillary response to light
C. Assessing for hematuria
D. Cranial nerve 8 assessment
The pelvis is close to major organs and the nurse needs to assess for damage to associated organs. The bladder could have been damaged and hematuria assessment would be a priority. Answers A, B, and D are important assessments, but are not the priority, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The RN with 2 weeks experience in postpartum
B. The RN with 3 years experience in labor and delivery
C. The RN with 10 years experience in surgery
D. The RN with 1 year experience in the neonatal intensive care unit
The nurse in answer B has the most experience in knowing the possible complications involved with preeclampsia. The nurse in answer A is a new nurse to this unit, so the answer is incorrect. The nurse in answer C has no experience with the postpartum client, so the answer is incorrect. The nurse in answer D also has no experience with postpartum clients, so the answer is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Culture
B. VDRL
C. RPR
D. FTA-ABS
The fluorescent treponemal antibody test (FTA-ABS) is most diagnostic for syphilis. Answer A is incorrect because a culture of the discharge is used to diagnose gonorrhea, not syphilis. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are screening tests and are not as diagnostic as the FTA-ABS is.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Breath sounds
B. Deep tendon reflexes
C. Blood pressure
D. Bowel sounds
The patient is exhibiting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. The hypertension can be severe and requires treatment; therefore, this assessment is essential. The assessments in Answers A, B, and D might all be done, but C is the priority, so the others are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Fractures of the ribs
B. Contusions of the lower legs
C. Fractures of the humerus
D. Lacerations of the face
Fractures of the ribs can result in a closed pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency, that requires early detection and treatment. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not pose a risk to the life of the client.
Please fill this form to further take Demo Quiz.
College of Nursing Education & Training Australia acknowledges the Traditional Owners of the country throughout Australia and recognises their continuing connection to land, waters and culture. We pay our respects to Elders past, present and emerging
NCLEX-P ®, NCLEX-RN® are registered trademarks of the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, Inc (NCSBN ®) College of Nursing Education & Training Australia is neither endorsed by nor affiliated with AHPRA. None of the trademark holders is affiliated with, and does not endorse, College of Nursing Education & Training Australia Products.
