Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Phosphorus 2.5 mEq/L
B. Potassium 1.8 mEq/L
C. Calcium 9.4 mg/dl
D. Magnesium 2.4 mEq/L
The client taking furosemide is at risk for developing hypokalemia (decreased potassium) because this drug is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. A potassium level of 1.8 is extremely low and might result in cardiac dysrhythmias. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because the levels noted in the question are within normal levels.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Ancef (cefazolin sodium)
B. Cipro (ciprofloxacin)
C. Kantrex (kanamycin)
D. Garamycin (gentamicin)
Cipro (ciprofloxacin) is the drug of choice for treating anthrax. Answers A, C, and D are not used to treat anthrax, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Call the doctor
B. Stop the IV infusion of Vancomycin
C. Administer Benadryl as ordered
D. Take the vital signs
All are important however, the initial step is to stop the cause of the allergy.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Begin an IV of normal saline at keep-open rate
B. Continue the magnesium sulfate as ordered
C. Contact the doctor immediately
D. Prepare for an emergency delivery
The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate is 4.0–9.6 meq/L; therefore, with a magnesium level of 6.3meq/L, the nurse should continue the infusion. Answers A, C, and D indicate that the nurse believes the level to be toxic. This is an incorrect conclusion, making these answers incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Cover the cord with dry, sterile gauze
B. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
C. Push up on the presenting part with an examining finger
D. Begin an IV of normal saline at keep-open rate
The nurse should push on the presenting part to relieve pressure on the cord and facilitate blood flow through the cord. Answer A is incorrect because the sterile gauze should be moist, not dry. Answer B is incorrect because the client should be placed in Trendelenburg position, not high Fowler’s position. Answer D is incorrect because the IV fluid should be rapid, not keep-open rate, to increase hydration and blood flow to the fetus.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. No need for any medical treatment for radiation exposure
B. Have damage to the bones, kidneys, liver, and thyroid
C. Experience only erythema and desquamation
D. Not be radioactive because the radiation passes through the body
The client with incorporation radiation injuries requires immediate medical treatment. Most of the damage occurs to the bones, kidneys, liver, and thyroid. Answers A, C, and D refer to external irradiation, so they are wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Weight loss
B. Decreased appetite
C. Hirsutism
D. Integumentary bronzing
Notice that the testing strategy “odd item out” can be used in this question. Answers A, B, and D are symptoms of Addison’s disease. Answer C is the answer that is different from the rest. Hirsutism, or facial hair, is a side effect of cortisone therapy.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Control HCO3 levels
B. Retain or blow off CO2
C. Regulate potassium levels
D. Maintain sodium levels
The lungs assist in the control of acid/base balance by regulating the amount of CO2 that is retained or exhaled. The lungs are not in control of HCO3, potassium, or sodium; therefore, Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Elevate the extremity on a pillow
B. Administer pain medication
C. Administer pain medication
D. Perform a neurovascular reassessment
The physician must be notified because the client is at risk for compartment syndrome. The healthcare provider might order that the cast be bivalved, or a fasciotomy might be required. Answers A, B, and D will not take the action necessary to prevent the complication of compartment syndrome.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Wearing gloves when emptying the client’s bedpan
B. Keeping all linens in the room until the implant is removed
C. Wearing a lead apron when providing direct care to the client
D. Placing the client in a 4 bedded room with shared toilet
A private room with a private bath is essential if a client has an internal radiation implant. This is necessary to prevent accidental exposure of other clients to radiation. The remaining options identify accurate interventions for a client with an internal radiation implant and protect the nurse from exposure.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Administering a local anesthetic
B. Checking for an allergic response
C. Administering an anxiolytic
D. Withholding fluids for 6–8 hours
The nurse should perform the skin or eye test before administering antivenin. Answers A and D are unnecessary and therefore incorrect. Answer C would help calm the client but is not a priority before giving the antivenin, making it incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B, Option D
A. Wear airborne precaution PPE
B. Obtain nasopharyngeal and oropharyngeal swabs
C. The swab product is the same swab used for MRSA testing
D. Instruct patient to self isolate until swab results are back
Answer: 2,4
Droplet precautions must be worn unless performing aerosolized procedures such as nebulizers or intubation. MRSA swab test is for the identification of bacterial microorganisms, COVID is a virus, therefore a virus swab must be used.
The nurse should conduct an oronasal pharyngeal swab and must instruct the patient to self-isolate, proper hand hygiene, and cough etiquette.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. A 42-year-old with dyspnoea and chest asymmetry
B. A 17-year-old with a fractured arm
C. A 4-year-old with facial lacerations
D. A 30-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma
Following the ABCDs of basic emergency care, the client with dyspnea and asymmetrical chest should be cared for first because these symptoms are associated with flail chest. Answer D is incorrect because he should be cared for second because of the likelihood of organ damage and bleeding. Answer B is incorrect because he should be cared for after the client with abdominal trauma. Answer C is incorrect because he should receive care last because his injuries are less severe.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Dermatophytes that cause fungal infections are spread only by human-to-human contact.
B. Infection depends on inoculation and maintenance of the organism in the outer layers of the skin.
C. Treatment of fungal infections continues only until lesions have disappeared.
D. Systemic fungal infections are best treated with antibacterial medications.
Infection occurs when dermatophytes come in contact with a susceptible host that allows inoculation and maintenance in the outer layers of the skin. Answer A is incorrect because dermatophytes are spread by contact with contaminated soil, animals, or humans. Answer C is incorrect because therapy usually continues for one to two weeks after clearing in order to prevent recurrence. Answer D is incorrect because systemic fungal infections are treated with antifungal medications such as Nizoral (ketoconozole), not antibacterial medications.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Prepare the child for surgery
B. Document the finding only
C. Notify the physician
D. Palpate the child’s abdomen
The passage of a soft formed brown stool is an indication that the intussusception is resolving. Answer A is incorrect because the condition is resolving without surgery. Answer B is incorrect because the physician should be notified in addition to documenting the finding. Answer D is incorrect because the nurse should not palpate the abdomen of a child recovering from intussusception.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Diarrheal illness caused by salmonella
B. Routine childhood immunization
C. Eruption of primary teeth
D. Otitis media
Facial cellulitis is associated with otitis media, a common ear infection in young children. Answers A, B, and C are not associated with the development of facial cellulitis; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Urinary output
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Verbal responsiveness
Answer B is correct. Barbiturate overdose results in central nervous system depression, which leads to respiratory failure. Answers A and C are important to the client’s overall condition but are not specific to the question, so they are incorrect. The use of barbiturates results in slow, slurred speech, so answer D is expected, and therefore incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (240mL / 1/3) – 240mL = (240mL x 3) – 240mL = 720mL – 240mL = 480mL
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Culture
B. VDRL
C. RPR
D. FTA-ABS
The fluorescent treponemal antibody test (FTA-ABS) is most diagnostic for syphilis. Answer A is incorrect because a culture of the discharge is used to diagnose gonorrhea, not syphilis. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are screening tests and are not as diagnostic as the FTA-ABS is.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Amenorrhea
B. Headache
C. Blurred vision
D. Weight loss
Prolactinoma tumors are tumors arising from hyperplasia of the pituitary gland that are prolactin hormone–based. Amenorrhea and anovulation are associated with prolactinomas because the pituitary gland assists with stimulation of the ovaries and ovulation, so answer A is correct. Because the pituitary is located in the center of the skull, adjacent to the brain, answers B and C are associated with increased intracranial pressure. Answer D is incorrect because weight gain can occur, not weight loss.
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