Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Check the client’s temperature.
B. Isolate the client in a private room.
C. Check a complete set of vital signs
D. Contact the primary health care provider.
The nurse should suspect the potential for Ebola virus disease (EVD) because of the client’s recent travel to Nigeria. The nurse needs to consider the symptoms that the client is reporting, and clients who meet the exposure criteria should be isolated in a private room before other treatment measures are taken. Exposure criteria include a fever reported at home or in the ED of 38.0° C (100.4° F) or headache, fatigue, weakness, muscle pain, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or signs of bleeding.
This client is reporting a fever and is showing other signs of EVD, and therefore should be isolated. After isolating the client, it would be acceptable to then collect further data and notify the primary health care provider and other state and local authorities of the client’s signs and symptoms
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Acyclovir (Zovirax)
B. Podophyllin
C. AZT (Retrovir)
D. Isoniazid (Lanzid)
Acyclovir is used to treat genital herpes. Answer B is incorrect because Podophyllin is used to treat condyloma acuminata (venereal warts). Answer C is incorrect because AZT (Retrovir) is used to prevent HIV transmission from mother to baby. Answer D is incorrect because isoniazid is used to treat tuberculosis, not herpes.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. CSF protein elevation with a normal cell count
B. WBC count of 2800 mm
C. Abnormal liver function test
D. Abnormal electromyographic (EMG) studies
This is the most definitive diagnostic result. The client would experience an elevated white blood cell count, which makes Answer B incorrect. Answers C and D can occur with many diagnoses, so they are not specific for Guillain-Barrè and are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is True
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. 12 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 30 months
Most children have all their primary teeth by age 30 months. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because tooth eruption is not complete.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Walk one to two steps ahead with the client’s hand on the nurse’s elbow
B. Walk beside the client while holding her hand.
C. Walk one to two steps behind with the nurse’s hand on the client’s elbow.
D. Walk beside the client without touching her.
When ambulating the client who is blind, the nurse should allow the client to grasp his arm at the elbow. The nurse’s arm should be kept close to the body so that the client can detect the nurse’s direction or movement. Answers B, C, and D are improper ways of ambulating the client who is blind; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Dry the skin thoroughly and apply the cream
B. Use a vigorous circular motion to apply the cream
C. Apply the cream 2–3 minutes after the bath
D. Use the cream only if flaking of the skin is noted
The application of an emollient cream to the skin two or three minutes after bathing helps seal in moisture. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not facilitate rehydration of the skin.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Pheochromocytoma
B. Intermittent claudication
C. Kawasaki disease
D. Thromboangiitis obliterans
The other name for Buerger’s disease is thromboangiitis obliterans. Answer A is incorrect because pheochromocytoma is an adrenal tumor. Answer B is incorrect because intermittent claudication is pain in an extremity when walking. Answer C is incorrect because Kawasaki disease is an acute vasculitis that can result in an aneurysm in the thoracic area.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. 2–4 mm
B. 3–5 mm
C. 6–8 mm
D. 7–9 mm
The normal pupil diameter is between 3 and 5 mm in size. Answers A, C, and D are not normal pupil diameters; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Amenorrhea
B. Headache
C. Blurred vision
D. Weight loss
Prolactinoma tumors are tumors arising from hyperplasia of the pituitary gland that are prolactin hormone–based. Amenorrhea and anovulation are associated with prolactinomas because the pituitary gland assists with stimulation of the ovaries and ovulation, so answer A is correct. Because the pituitary is located in the center of the skull, adjacent to the brain, answers B and C are associated with increased intracranial pressure. Answer D is incorrect because weight gain can occur, not weight loss.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Call for help.
B. Extinguish the fire.
C. Activate the fire alarm.
D. Confine the fire by closing the room door.
The order of priority in the event of a fire is to rescue the clients who are in immediate danger. The next step is to activate the fire alarm. The fire then is confined by closing all doors and, finally, the fire is extinguished.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. A defect in the cochlea
B. A defect in cranial nerve VIII
C. A physical obstruction to the transmission of sound waves
D. A defect in the sensory fibers that lead to the cerebral cortex
A conductive hearing loss occurs as a result of a physical obstruction to the transmission of sound waves. A sensorineural hearing loss occurs as a result of a pathological process in the inner ear, a defect in cranial nerve VIII, or a defect of the sensory fibers that lead to the cerebral cortex.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Turn the clients to the left side
B. Immobilize the extremity by splinting above and below the fractured site
C. Provide manual traction of the fracture site
D. Reinsert any protruding bones and apply a sterile dressing
The nurse should splint the extremity, cover the area, and do a neurovascular assessment. Answer A is incorrect because the client should be in the supine position. Answer C is not recommended, so it is incorrect. Answer D is detrimental and increases the risk of infection, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Hemarthrosis of the elbow
B. Bruise of the ankle
C. Bruise of the ankle
D. Unilateral numbness and lack of movement of arm
The neurological symptoms could mean an intracranial bleed has occurred. The answers in A, B, and C are reasons for concern, but they are not the priority, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Private room or cohort client
B. Personal respiratory protection device
C. Private room with negative airflow pressure
D. Mask worn by staff when the client needs to leave the room
Meningitis is transmitted by droplet infection. Precautions for this disease include a private room or cohort client and the use of a standard precaution mask. Private negative airflow pressure rooms and personal respiratory protection devices are required for clients with airborne diseases such as tuberculosis. When appropriate, a mask must be worn by the client and not the staff when the client leaves the room.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Ribavirin
B. Respigam
C. Sandimmune
D. Synagis
The only effective treatment of bronchiolitis (respiratory synctial virus) is ribavirin. Answers B and D are incorrect because they are used prophylactically, not as a treatment for bronchiolitis. Sandimmune, an immunosuppressive drug, is not used for treating bronchiolitis; therefore, Answer C is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. An involuntary rhythmic, rapid, twitching of the eyeballs
B. A dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes
C. A significant sway when the client stands erect with feet together, arms at the side, and the eyes closed
D. A lack of normal sense of position when the client is unable to return extended fingers to a point of reference
In Romberg’s test, the client is asked to stand with the feet together and the arms at the sides, and to close the eyes and hold the position; normally the client can maintain posture and balance. A positive Romberg’s sign is a vestibular neurological sign that is found when a client exhibits a loss of balance when closing the eyes. This may occur with cerebellar ataxia, loss of proprioception, and loss of vestibular function. A lack of a normal sense of position coupled with an inability to return extended fingers to a point of reference is a finding that indicates a problem with coordination. A positive gaze nystagmus evaluation results in an involuntary rhythmic, rapid twitching of the eyeballs. A positive Babinski’s test results in dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes; if this occurs in anyone older than 2 years it indicates the presence of central nervous system disease.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Phalen’s maneuver
B. Tinel’s sign
C. Chevotsky’s sign
D. Turner’s sign
This test is measured as described and can result in pain and a tingling sensation if the client has carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS). Answer A is incorrect because it is a test in which the client is asked to place the back of the hands together and flex the wrist at the same time causing pain. Answers C and D are exams not related to CTS, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Ancef (cefazolin sodium)
B. Cipro (ciprofloxacin)
C. Kantrex (kanamycin)
D. Garamycin (gentamicin)
Cipro (ciprofloxacin) is the drug of choice for treating anthrax. Answers A, C, and D are not used to treat anthrax, so they are incorrect.
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