Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Continue to monitor the vital signs
B. Contact the physician
C. Ask the client how he feels
D. Ask the LPN to continue the postop care
The vital signs are abnormal and should be reported immediately. Continuing to monitor the vital signs can result in deterioration of the client’s condition, so answer A is incorrect. Asking the client how he feels would supply only subjective data, so answer C is incorrect. The LPN is not the best nurse to be assigned to this client because he is unstable, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Hyperacute graft rejection is due to chronic inflammation and scaring.
B. Hyperacute graft rejection is a cellular response that occurs 1–3 weeks after transplantation.
C. Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely in clients who have received multiple blood transfusions.
D. Hyperacute graft rejection is managed by use of immunosuppressive medications.
Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely to occur in clients who receive a transplant from a donor with an ABO type different from their own, in those with a history of multiple blood transfusions, those with multiple pregnancies, or those with a previous transplant. Answers A and D are incorrect because they describe chronic graft rejection. Answer B describes acute graft rejection; therefore, it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Fear related to potential hearing loss
B. Risk for injury related to loss of balance
C. Activity intolerance related to perception of dizziness
D. Anxiety related to loss of control
The client with Ménière’s disease experiences a whirling sensation that could lead to falls. The nurse should give priority to the client’s safety. Answers A, C, and D should be considered when planning for the client’s care; however, they do not take priority over safety; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Risedronate (Actonel)
B. Alendronate (Fosamax)
C. Ibandronate (Boniva)
D. Raloxifene (Evista)
Evista should not be given to clients with liver disease because it can make the condition worse. Answers A, B, and C are not contraindicated in liver disease clients, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Lub-dub sounds
B. Scratchy, leathery heart noise
C. A blowing or swooshing noise
D. Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise
A heart murmur is an abnormal heart sound and is described as a faint or loud blowing, swooshing sound with a high, medium, or low pitch. Lub-dub sounds are normal and represent the S1 (first) heart sound and S2 (second) heart sound, respectively. A pericardial friction rub is described as a scratchy, leathery heart sound. A click is described as an abrupt, high-pitched snapping sound.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Vancomycin (Vancocin) IV
B. Ampicillin (Omnipen) PO
C. Ceftriazone (Rocephin) IM
D. Cefotaxime sodium (Claforan)
Vancomycin IV would be the antibiotic of choice for resistant strands of meningitis. The client would need the medication to work quickly, making Answers B and C incorrect. Answer D is an antibiotic used for meningitis, but would not be the one of choice for resistant strains of meningitis, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Third
B. Fifth
C. Seventh
D. Ninth
Damage to the seventh cranial nerve (facial nerve) might occur during a stapedectomy. Changes in facial sensation should be reported to the doctor. Stapedectomy complications do not include damage to the third, fifth, or ninth cranial nerves; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Teach the client to sleep with a foam wedge under the head.
Encourage the client to decrease the amount of smoking.
Instruct the client to take over-the-counter medication for relief of pain.
Discuss the need to attend Alcoholics Anonymous to quit drinking.
The behavioural modification a client can do is start sleeping with a foam wedge under the head to minimize the reflux of the gastric content after having food.
B,C and D are essential for GERD management aswell but the one that can be done promptly to help patient is option A.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. A schizophrenic client having visual and auditory hallucinations and the client with ulcerative colitis
B. The client who is six months pregnant with abdominal pain and the client with facial lacerations and a broken arm
C. A child whose pupils are fixed and dilated and his parents and a client with a frontal head injury
D. The client who arrives with a large puncture wound to the abdomen and the client with chest pain
Out of all these clients, it is best to hold the pregnant client and the client with a broken arm and facial lacerations in the same room. The other clients need to be placed in separate rooms, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Schedule frequent eye exams
B. Expect red discoloration of his urine
C. Increase his fluid intake
D. Expect dizziness and ringing in his ears
The use of pyrazinamide can result in gout-like symptoms; therefore, the client should increase his fluid intake. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because they are associated with other antitubercular medications.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Autograft
B. Isograft
C. Allograft
D. Xenograft
Xenografts are taken from animal sources. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they originate from human donors.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Dry mouth
B. Palpitations
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Anemia
Side effects from bronchodilators such as theophylline include tremulousness, palpitations, and restlessness. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not expected side effects of bronchodilators.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. The procedure will take one to two hours.
B. The client will be given oral medication to prepare for the test.
C. The urine will be bright green until the dye is excreted.
D. The client will need to limit fluid intake after the test.
Fluorescein will cause the client’s urine to be bright green in color until the dye is excreted. Answer A is incorrect; the procedure takes only a few minutes because the vessels fill rapidly. Answer B is incorrect because the dye is injected intravenously. Answer D is incorrect because the client will need to drink additional fluids to help eliminate the dye.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Lying on a firm surface that does not distribute weight
B. Resting in a semi-sitting position that allows gradual downward movement
C. Rubbing or irritating the skin so that epithelial cells are removed
D. Compression of blood vessels that leads to ischemia, inflammation, and tissue necrosis
Shear or shearing forces occur whenever the skin is stationary while tissues below the skin are able to shift or move. Answers A and D are incorrect because they describe the physical force of pressure. Answer C refers to friction; therefore, it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
The thyroid is located anterior to the trachea; therefore, laryngeal stridor and airway obstruction is a risk following a thyroidectomy. Answer A is incorrect because this action is not necessary. The need for extra blankets is associated with hypothyroidism, but is not directly associated with thyroid surgery. Answer C is incorrect because the client can talk. Answer D is incorrect because pain medication should be offered as needed, not every four hours.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Warming the intravenous fluids
B. Determining whether the client can take oral fluids
C. Checking for the strength of pedal pulses
D. Obtaining the specific gravity of the urine
Warming the intravenous fluid helps to prevent further stress on the vascular system. Thirst is a sign of hypovolemia; however, oral fluids alone will not meet the fluid needs of the client in hypovolemic shock, so answer B is incorrect. Answers C and D are wrong because they can be used for baseline information but will not help stabilize the client.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Blood or body fluid exposure to the virus
B. Emptying her cat’s litter box
C. Contaminated food or water
D. Pigeon feces
Cytomegalovirus virus is transmitted predominantly by blood or body fluid exposure to the virus. Answer B is incorrect, toxoplasmosis is transmitted through contaminated cat feces. Answer C is incorrect because contaminated food or water can cause many illnesses; for example, E. coli, listeria, Clostridium difficile, and many others. Answer D is incorrect because histoplasmosis is transmitted by bird feces.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Share hats and caps
B. Wear training pants
C. Engage in imitative play
D. Have hand-to-mouth contact
Enterobiasis is most common in young children because of frequent hand-to-mouth contact. Answer A is incorrect because sharing hats and caps contributes to the spread of pediculosis capitis. Wearing training pants and playing with imitative toys is not associated with enterobiasis; therefore, Answers B and C are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Rhythmic respirations with periods of apnea
B. Regular rapid and deep, sustained respirations
C. Totally irregular respiration in rhythm and depth
D. Irregular respirations with pauses at the end of inspiration and expiration
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are rhythmic respirations with periods of apnea and can indicate a metabolic dysfunction in the cerebral hemisphere or basal ganglia. Neurogenic hyperventilation is a regular, rapid and deep, sustained respiration that can indicate a dysfunction in the low midbrain and middle pons. Ataxic respirations are totally irregular in rhythm and depth and indicate a dysfunction in the medulla. Apneustic respirations are irregular respirations with pauses at the end of inspiration and expiration and can indicate a dysfunction in the middle or caudal pons.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Call the doctor
B. Stop the IV infusion of Vancomycin
C. Administer Benadryl as ordered
D. Take the vital signs
All are important however, the initial step is to stop the cause of the allergy.
Please fill this form to further take Demo Quiz.
College of Nursing Education & Training Australia acknowledges the Traditional Owners of the country throughout Australia and recognises their continuing connection to land, waters and culture. We pay our respects to Elders past, present and emerging
NCLEX-P ®, NCLEX-RN® are registered trademarks of the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, Inc (NCSBN ®) College of Nursing Education & Training Australia is neither endorsed by nor affiliated with AHPRA. None of the trademark holders is affiliated with, and does not endorse, College of Nursing Education & Training Australia Products.