Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Ribavirin
B. Respigam
C. Sandimmune
D. Synagis
The only effective treatment of bronchiolitis (respiratory synctial virus) is ribavirin. Answers B and D are incorrect because they are used prophylactically, not as a treatment for bronchiolitis. Sandimmune, an immunosuppressive drug, is not used for treating bronchiolitis; therefore, Answer C is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Hemarthrosis of the elbow
B. Bruise of the ankle
C. Bruise of the ankle
D. Unilateral numbness and lack of movement of arm
The neurological symptoms could mean an intracranial bleed has occurred. The answers in A, B, and C are reasons for concern, but they are not the priority, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Instruct the aggressive patient to help you with ambulating the bedridden patient
B. Instruct the ambulant patient to assist the 78-year-old in the evacuation process while you seek help in evacuating the bedridden patient
C. Call the switchboard for help in the evacuation
D. Tell everyone the building is on fire and that all take the fire exit
Ambulant patients can assist semi ambulant patients in case of emergency. Take the full dependent and aggressive patients last. There is no point in asking the switchboard as the alarm has been activated. The fire warden is in charge of instructing all people in the building, no the nurse.
The Correct Answer is Option C
Answer: C. A weight of 22.5 pounds is equal to 10.22 kilograms.
At 50 mg/kg, this child would need 511 milligrams of medication.
Using the formula:
Drug Desired / Drug Available x Volume = 511mg / 100mg x mL = 5.1 mL
At 100 mg/mL, the proper dose in milliliters is 5.1 milliliters.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Check the client’s temperature.
B. Isolate the client in a private room.
C. Check a complete set of vital signs
D. Contact the primary health care provider.
The nurse should suspect the potential for Ebola virus disease (EVD) because of the client’s recent travel to Nigeria. The nurse needs to consider the symptoms that the client is reporting, and clients who meet the exposure criteria should be isolated in a private room before other treatment measures are taken. Exposure criteria include a fever reported at home or in the ED of 38.0° C (100.4° F) or headache, fatigue, weakness, muscle pain, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, or signs of bleeding.
This client is reporting a fever and is showing other signs of EVD, and therefore should be isolated. After isolating the client, it would be acceptable to then collect further data and notify the primary health care provider and other state and local authorities of the client’s signs and symptoms
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. After a shower or bath
B. While standing to void
C. After having a bowel movement
D. While lying in bed before arising
The nurse needs to teach the client how to perform a TSE. The nurse should instruct the client to perform the exam on the same day each month. The nurse should also instruct the client that the best time to perform a TSE is after a shower or bath when the hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Palpation is easier and the client will be better able to identify any abnormalities. The client would stand to perform the exam, but it would be difficult to perform the exam while voiding. Having a bowel movement is unrelated to performing a TSE.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Have one of the client’s family members interpret.
B. Have the Spanish-speaking triage receptionist interpret.
C. Page an interpreter from the hospital’s interpreter services.
D. Obtain a Spanish-English dictionary and attempt to triage the client.
The best action is to have a professional hospital-based interpreter translate for the client. English-speaking family members may not appropriately understand what is asked of them and may paraphrase what the client is actually saying. Also, client confidentiality, as well as accurate information, may be compromised when a family member or a non–health care provider acts as an interpreter.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Dry mouth
B. Palpitations
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Anemia
Side effects from bronchodilators such as theophylline include tremulousness, palpitations, and restlessness. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they are not expected side effects of bronchodilators.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. The client receiving radium linear accelerator radiation therapy for cancer
B. The client with a radium implant for vaginal cancer
C. The client who has just been administered radioactive isotopes for cancer
D. The client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer
The pregnant nurse should not be assigned to any client with radioactivity present. The client receiving linear accelerator therapy travels to the radium department for therapy, and the radiation stays in the department. Thus, the client is not radioactive. The client in answer B poses a risk to the pregnant client, so answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the client is radioactive in very small doses. For approximately 72 hours, the client should dispose of urine and feces in special containers and use plastic spoons and forks. The client in answer D is also radioactive in small amounts, especially upon return from the procedure, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Assess for allergy to iodine
B. Check pulses proximal to the site
C. Assess the urinary output
D. Check to ensure that the client has a consent form signed
The dye used in the procedure can cause a decrease in renal function. The client’s renal function should be assessed and changes reported to the doctor immediately. Answer A is incorrect because the client’s allergies should be checked prior to the procedure, not after the procedure. The femoral artery is commonly used as the site for a catheterization. Answer B is incorrect because the pulses should be checked distal to the site. Answer D is incorrect because the permit should be signed prior to the procedure.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Lying on a firm surface that does not distribute weight
B. Resting in a semi-sitting position that allows gradual downward movement
C. Rubbing or irritating the skin so that epithelial cells are removed
D. Compression of blood vessels that leads to ischemia, inflammation, and tissue necrosis
Shear or shearing forces occur whenever the skin is stationary while tissues below the skin are able to shift or move. Answers A and D are incorrect because they describe the physical force of pressure. Answer C refers to friction; therefore, it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (200mL / ¾) – 200mL = (200mL x 4) / (1x3) – 200mL = 267mL – 200mL = 66.6666667 = 67mL
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Phosphorus 2.5 mEq/L
B. Potassium 1.8 mEq/L
C. Calcium 9.4 mg/dl
D. Magnesium 2.4 mEq/L
The client taking furosemide is at risk for developing hypokalemia (decreased potassium) because this drug is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. A potassium level of 1.8 is extremely low and might result in cardiac dysrhythmias. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because the levels noted in the question are within normal levels.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Return to the clinic in six weeks for a urinalysis
B. Avoid exercise for at least six weeks
C. Do not become pregnant for at least 12 months
D. Return to the clinic in six months for liver enzyme studies
The client that has experienced a hydatidiform mole should avoid becoming pregnant again for one year because chorionic carcinoma is associated with a hydatidiform mole. If the client does become pregnant and there are cells for chorionic carcinoma, the hormonal stimulation can cause rapid cell proliferation and growth of the cancer. Answer A is incorrect because a urinalysis in six weeks is not necessary. Answer B is incorrect because exercise is not contraindicated after a hydatidiform mole. Answer D is incorrect because checking liver enzymes in six months is not necessary after a hydatidiform mole.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Culture
B. VDRL
C. RPR
D. FTA-ABS
The fluorescent treponemal antibody test (FTA-ABS) is most diagnostic for syphilis. Answer A is incorrect because a culture of the discharge is used to diagnose gonorrhea, not syphilis. Answers B and C are incorrect because they are screening tests and are not as diagnostic as the FTA-ABS is.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Constipation
B. White blood cell count of 14,000
C. Amylase of 460
D. Potassium of 3.1 mEq/L
Amylase and lipase are reliable tests used for pancreatitis diagnosis. The answers in A, B, and D are not directly related to the pancreas and not diagnostic, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. An involuntary rhythmic, rapid, twitching of the eyeballs
B. A dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes
C. A significant sway when the client stands erect with feet together, arms at the side, and the eyes closed
D. A lack of normal sense of position when the client is unable to return extended fingers to a point of reference
In Romberg’s test, the client is asked to stand with the feet together and the arms at the sides, and to close the eyes and hold the position; normally the client can maintain posture and balance. A positive Romberg’s sign is a vestibular neurological sign that is found when a client exhibits a loss of balance when closing the eyes. This may occur with cerebellar ataxia, loss of proprioception, and loss of vestibular function. A lack of a normal sense of position coupled with an inability to return extended fingers to a point of reference is a finding that indicates a problem with coordination. A positive gaze nystagmus evaluation results in an involuntary rhythmic, rapid twitching of the eyeballs. A positive Babinski’s test results in dorsiflexion of the great toe with fanning of the other toes; if this occurs in anyone older than 2 years it indicates the presence of central nervous system disease.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Chocolate milk
B. Grapefruit juice
C. Orange juice
D. Milk
Sandimmune oral solution should not be mixed with grapefruit juice. Answers A, C, and D are all suitable beverages for mixing with the medication; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 100 ml
B. 300 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 700 ml
Fluid intake for the client with acute glomerulonephritis is limited to urinary output plus 500 mL to 600 mL. Answers A and B are incorrect because the intake is too limited. Answer D is incorrect because the intake is excessive.
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