Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Breath sounds
B. Deep tendon reflexes
C. Blood pressure
D. Bowel sounds
The patient is exhibiting symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia. The hypertension can be severe and requires treatment; therefore, this assessment is essential. The assessments in Answers A, B, and D might all be done, but C is the priority, so the others are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Weight loss
B. Decreased appetite
C. Hirsutism
D. Integumentary bronzing
Notice that the testing strategy “odd item out” can be used in this question. Answers A, B, and D are symptoms of Addison’s disease. Answer C is the answer that is different from the rest. Hirsutism, or facial hair, is a side effect of cortisone therapy.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Chocolate milk
B. Grapefruit juice
C. Orange juice
D. Milk
Sandimmune oral solution should not be mixed with grapefruit juice. Answers A, C, and D are all suitable beverages for mixing with the medication; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Insulin
B. Inderal (propanolol)
C. Lasix (furosemide)
D. Valium (diazepam)
Lasix is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. This drug can potentiate fluid volume deficit. Answer A is incorrect because insulin will force fluid back into the cell and will not increase fluid volume deficit. Answer B is incorrect because Inderal (propanolol) is a beta-blocker used for the treatment of hypertension and cardiac disease. Inderal does not potentiate diuresis. Answer D is incorrect because Valium (diazepam) is a phenothiazine used as an anti-anxiety medication. This drug does not potentiate fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. 2–4 mm
B. 3–5 mm
C. 6–8 mm
D. 7–9 mm
The normal pupil diameter is between 3 and 5 mm in size. Answers A, C, and D are not normal pupil diameters; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Vaccination with a live virus
B. Weakened immune system
C. Inoculation with BCG vaccine
D. Poor testing technique
Inoculation with BCG vaccine will produce a false positive TB skin test. Vaccination with a live virus, weakened immune system, and poor testing technique are factors that can produce a false negative TB skin test, therefore Answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. The client receiving radium linear accelerator radiation therapy for cancer
B. The client with a radium implant for vaginal cancer
C. The client who has just been administered radioactive isotopes for cancer
D. The client who returned from placement of iridium seeds for prostate cancer
The pregnant nurse should not be assigned to any client with radioactivity present. The client receiving linear accelerator therapy travels to the radium department for therapy, and the radiation stays in the department. Thus, the client is not radioactive. The client in answer B poses a risk to the pregnant client, so answer B is incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because the client is radioactive in very small doses. For approximately 72 hours, the client should dispose of urine and feces in special containers and use plastic spoons and forks. The client in answer D is also radioactive in small amounts, especially upon return from the procedure, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Instruct the aggressive patient to help you with ambulating the bedridden patient
B. Instruct the ambulant patient to assist the 78-year-old in the evacuation process while you seek help in evacuating the bedridden patient
C. Call the switchboard for help in the evacuation
D. Tell everyone the building is on fire and that all take the fire exit
Ambulant patients can assist semi ambulant patients in case of emergency. Take the full dependent and aggressive patients last. There is no point in asking the switchboard as the alarm has been activated. The fire warden is in charge of instructing all people in the building, no the nurse.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Take the medication as ordered prior to the exam
B. Limit the amount of protein in the diet prior to the exam
C. Discontinue the medication prior to the exam
D. Take the medication with only water prior to the exam
Glucophage can cause renal problems. The dye used in cardiac catheterizations is also detrimental to the kidneys. The client may be placed on sliding scale insulin for 48 hours after the dye procedure or until renal function returns. Note the syllable phage, as seen in the syllable phagia, which means eating. Also note that answers A and C are opposites. Answer A is incorrect because the medication should be withheld; answer B is incorrect because limiting the amount of protein in the diet prior to the exam has no correlation to the medication. Taking the medication with water is not necessary, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Private room or cohort client
B. Personal respiratory protection device
C. Private room with negative airflow pressure
D. Mask worn by staff when the client needs to leave the room
Meningitis is transmitted by droplet infection. Precautions for this disease include a private room or cohort client and use of a standard precaution mask. Private negative airflow pressure rooms and personal respiratory protection devices are required for clients with airborne disease such as tuberculosis. When appropriate, a mask must be worn by the client and not the staff when the client leaves the room.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. After a shower or bath
B. While standing to void
C. After having a bowel movement
D. While lying in bed before arising
The nurse needs to teach the client how to perform a TSE. The nurse should instruct the client to perform the exam on the same day each month. The nurse should also instruct the client that the best time to perform a TSE is after a shower or bath when the hands are warm and soapy and the scrotum is warm. Palpation is easier and the client will be better able to identify any abnormalities. The client would stand to perform the exam, but it would be difficult to perform the exam while voiding. Having a bowel movement is unrelated to performing a TSE.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Gemcitabine (Gemzar)
B. Gefitinib (Iressa)
C. Cabergoline (Dostinex)
D. Ganciclovir (Cytovene)
Dostinex is used to shrink the prolactin-based tumor. Answers A and B are antineoplastic drugs. Answer D is an antiviral medication.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Administering a local anesthetic
B. Checking for an allergic response
C. Administering an anxiolytic
D. Withholding fluids for 6–8 hours
The nurse should perform the skin or eye test before administering antivenin. Answers A and D are unnecessary and therefore incorrect. Answer C would help calm the client but is not a priority before giving the antivenin, making it incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. A 42-year-old with dyspnea and chest asymmetry
B. A 17-year-old with a fractured arm
C. A 4-year-old with facial lacerations
D. A 30-year-old with blunt abdominal trauma
Following the ABCDs of basic emergency care, the client with dyspnea and asymmetrical chest should be cared for first because these symptoms are associated with flail chest. Answer D is incorrect because he should be cared for second because of the likelihood of organ damage and bleeding. Answer B is incorrect because he should be cared for after the client with abdominal trauma. Answer C is incorrect because he should receive care last because his injuries are less severe.
The Correct Answer is Option A
Teach the client to sleep with a foam wedge under the head.
Encourage the client to decrease the amount of smoking.
Instruct the client to take over-the-counter medication for relief of pain.
Discuss the need to attend Alcoholics Anonymous to quit drinking.
The behavioural modification a client can do is start sleeping with a foam wedge under the head to minimize the reflux of the gastric content after having food.
B,C and D are essential for GERD management aswell but the one that can be done promptly to help patient is option A.
The Correct Answer is Option A, Option B, Option D
A. Auscultating lung sounds
B. Obtaining the client’s temperature
C. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses
D. Obtaining information about the client’s respirations
Answer: 1,2,4
A focused assessment focuses on a limited or short-term problem, such as the client’s complaint. Because the client is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion, the nurse would focus on the respiratory system and the presence of an infection. A complete assessment includes a complete health history and physical examination and forms a baseline database. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses relates to a vascular assessment, which is not related to this client’s complaints. A musculoskeletal and neurological examination also is not related to this client’s complaints. However, the strength of peripheral pulses and a musculoskeletal and neurological examination would be included in a complete assessment. Likewise, asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease would be included in a complete
assessment
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Should be protected from light
B. Is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic
C. Causes vasoconstriction
D. Decreases circulation to the extremities
Nitroglycerine preparations should be protected from light because light decreases the effectiveness of this category of medication. Answer B is incorrect because Nitropress is not a diuretic. Answer C is incorrect because Nitropress is a vasodilator, not a vasoconstrictor. Answer D is incorrect because nitroglycerine does not decrease circulation to the extremities.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Lub-dub sounds
B. Scratchy, leathery heart noise
C. A blowing or swooshing noise
D. Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise
A heart murmur is an abnormal heart sound and is described as a faint or loud blowing, swooshing sound with a high, medium, or low pitch. Lub-dub sounds are normal and represent the S1 (first) heart sound and S2 (second) heart sound, respectively. A pericardial friction rub is described as a scratchy, leathery heart sound. A click is described as an abrupt, high-pitched snapping sound.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Polydipsia and bradycardia
B. Euphoria and polyuria
C. Muscle weakness and irritability
D. Ringing in the ears and blurred vision
Other symptoms of SIADH include loss of thirst, tachycardia, hostility, and decreased urinary output. This makes Answers A and B incorrect. The answer in D is not associated with SIADH, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
You are working on the 3pm-11pm shift. Estimate the patients 8 hour intake when administered with the following: IVF @ 25cc/hr continuous; TPN @ 50cc/hr continuous; Lipids at 10cc/hr for 12 hours (8pm-8am); NGT feeds @ 25 cc/hr continuous; 2 units of blood – 250ml/unit – first unit at 10am/ second unit at 4pm; IV Vancomycin – 250ml every 12 hours at 8am/8pm.
REMEMBER: cc = mL
IVF = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
TPN = 50 mL x 8 hours = 400 mL
Lipids = 10 mL x 3 hours (consider only 3hours 8pm-11pm as shift ends at 11pm) = 30 mL
NGT feeds = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
Blood - x1 unit given at 4pm included in 3pm-11pm shift = 250 mL
IV Vancomycin = 250 mL (given at 8pm, 8am shift not included)
TOTAL INTAKE = 1330 mLs
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