Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Phosphorus 2.5 mEq/L
B. Potassium 1.8 mEq/L
C. Calcium 9.4 mg/dl
D. Magnesium 2.4 mEq/L
The client taking furosemide is at risk for developing hypokalemia (decreased potassium) because this drug is a non–potassium-sparing diuretic. A potassium level of 1.8 is extremely low and might result in cardiac dysrhythmias. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because the levels noted in the question are within normal levels.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Obtain an IV controller
B. Check the client’s vital signs hourly
C. Check the sodium level
D. Obtain an 18-gauge cathlon to begin the infusion
If potassium is added to IV fluids, a controller is required because a too-rapid infusion of potassium can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Answer B is incorrect only because there is no data to indicate that hourly vital signs should be obtained. Answer C is incorrect because the client has an order for D51/2NS, which is the same in saline as the client’s normal sodium level. Answer D is incorrect because an 18-gauge cathlon is not required. The nurse can use any size cathlon for this infusion.
The Correct Answer is Option B
Volume of water to add (mL) = total volume of formula on hand (mL) – total volume of formula on hand (mL)
Diluted strength
mL water = (300mL / 2/3) – 300mL = (300mL x 3) / (1x2) – 300mL = 450mL – 300mL = 150mL
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Lub-dub sounds
B. Scratchy, leathery heart noise
C. A blowing or swooshing noise
D. Abrupt, high-pitched snapping noise
A heart murmur is an abnormal heart sound and is described as a faint or loud blowing, swooshing sound with a high, medium, or low pitch. Lub-dub sounds are normal and represent the S1 (first) heart sound and S2 (second) heart sound, respectively. A pericardial friction rub is described as a scratchy, leathery heart sound. A click is described as an abrupt, high-pitched snapping sound.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Call for help.
B. Extinguish the fire.
C. Activate the fire alarm.
D. Confine the fire by closing the room door.
The order of priority in the event of a fire is to rescue the clients who are in immediate danger. The next step is to activate the fire alarm. The fire then is confined by closing all doors and, finally, the fire is extinguished.
The Correct Answer is Option B
Convert weight from pounds to kilograms (32lbs/2.2lbs) and multiply by required dose (20ml/kg) multiplied by drop factor (10drops/ml) over the required time of 60minutes.
32 lbs x kg x 20mL x 10drops
2.2lbs kg ml
___________________________ = 48.4848485 = 48 drops/minute (rounded off to whole number)
60 minutes
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. 1400
B. 1500
C. 1600
D. 1700
Blood must be finished within four hours of the start time. Answers in A, B, and C are before the 4-hour time limit, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Placing the client in the prone position
B. Starting an IV with an 18-gauge needle
C. Obtaining a lipid profile
D. Assessing that the client empties the bladder
The bladder should be empty for a paracentesis procedure to prevent incidental puncturing. Answer A is incorrect because the client sits upright for the procedure and prone places the client on the abdomen. Answers B and C are not necessary interventions for a paracentesis, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Instruct the client to perform the Valsalva maneuver
B. Elevate the tubing above the client’s chest level
C. Decrease the amount of suction being applied
D. Form a water seal and obtain a new connector
The nurse should form a water seal, remove the contaminated end, and insert a new sterile connector. The Valsalva maneuver is used when the chest tube is being removed, therefore Answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because the chest drainage system is maintained below the client’s chest level. Answer C is incorrect because the nurse cannot alter the amount of suction being applied without a doctor’s order.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Webbed neckWebbed neck
B. High arched palate
C. Scaphoid abdomen
D. Low-set ears
Structural anomalies in the infant with polycystic kidney disease include low-set ears, pointed nose, and small chin. Answers A, B, and C are not associated with polycystic kidney disease; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The facility fails to provide literature in both Spanish and English.
B. The narcotic count has been incorrect on the unit for the past three days.
C. The client fails to receive an itemized account of his bills and services received during his hospital stay.
D. The nursing assistant assigned to the client with hepatitis fails to feed the client and give him a bath.
The accreditation committee of hospitals will probably be interested in the problems in answers A and C, so they are incorrect. The failure of the nursing assistant to assist the client with hepatitis should be reported to the charge nurse. If the behavior continues, termination can result, but it doesn’t need to be reported to the board, so answer 4 is incorrect. Option B is a reportable case to the board as this indicates malpractice to the nurses who have not reported a miscounted drug. This can also lead to an investigation as to why the count is incorrect. E.g, underdosing or overdosing a patient; a nurse deliberately stealing controlled medications.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Notify the physician
B. Remove the weight to release the pressure on the pin
C. Reposition the client to the supine position
D. Try to remove the pin for examination
The nurse should notify the physician so that the pin can be repaired. Answers B and D are actions that can have negative results on the bone healing process, so they are incorrect. Answer C will not help, so it is wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. 12 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 30 months
Most children have all their primary teeth by age 30 months. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because tooth eruption is not complete.
The Correct Answer is Option B
The thyroid is located anterior to the trachea; therefore, laryngeal stridor and airway obstruction is a risk following a thyroidectomy. Answer A is incorrect because this action is not necessary. The need for extra blankets is associated with hypothyroidism, but is not directly associated with thyroid surgery. Answer C is incorrect because the client can talk. Answer D is incorrect because pain medication should be offered as needed, not every four hours.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Ancef (cefazolin sodium)
B. Cipro (ciprofloxacin)
C. Kantrex (kanamycin)
D. Garamycin (gentamicin)
Cipro (ciprofloxacin) is the drug of choice for treating anthrax. Answers A, C, and D are not used to treat anthrax, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A, Option B, Option D
A. Auscultating lung sounds
B. Obtaining the client’s temperature
C. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses
D. Obtaining information about the client’s respirations
Answer: 1,2,4
A focused assessment focuses on a limited or short-term problem, such as the client’s complaint. Because the client is complaining of symptoms of a cold, a cough, and lung congestion, the nurse would focus on the respiratory system and the presence of an infection. A complete assessment includes a complete health history and physical examination and forms a baseline database. Assessing the strength of peripheral pulses relates to a vascular assessment, which is not related to this client’s complaints. A musculoskeletal and neurological examination also is not related to this client’s complaints. However, the strength of peripheral pulses and a musculoskeletal and neurological examination would be included in a complete assessment. Likewise, asking the client about a family history of any illness or disease would be included in a complete
assessment
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Excitability
B. Tremors
C. Heart rate 150
D. Nausea
Adverse effects of epinephrine include hypertension and tachycardia. Answers A, B, and D are expected side effects of racemic epinephrine.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. A headache
B. Shortness of breath only during sleep
C. Lower back pain
D. Difficulty voiding
Clients with abdominal aortic aneurysms often complain of nausea, lower back pain, and feeling their heart beat in the abdomen. Answer A is incorrect because a headache is a symptom of a cerebral aneurysm. Answer B is incorrect because, although the client with an abdominal aneurysm might have shortness of breath, this symptom is not particular to during sleep. Answer D is incorrect because difficulty voiding is not associated with an abdominal aneurysm.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Cover the cord with dry, sterile gauze
B. Place the client in high Fowler’s position
C. Push up on the presenting part with an examining finger
D. Begin an IV of normal saline at keep-open rate
The nurse should push on the presenting part to relieve pressure on the cord and facilitate blood flow through the cord. Answer A is incorrect because the sterile gauze should be moist, not dry. Answer B is incorrect because the client should be placed in Trendelenburg position, not high Fowler’s position. Answer D is incorrect because the IV fluid should be rapid, not keep-open rate, to increase hydration and blood flow to the fetus.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Amoxil (amoxicillin)
B. K-Dur (potassium)
C. B12 (cyanocobalamine)
D. Tegretol (carbamazepine)
Tegretol (carbamazepine) is ototoxic. Answers A, B, and C do not pose a risk of ototoxicity; therefore, they are incorrect.
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