Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The client who is 40 weeks gestation having contractions every 5 minutes lasting 50 seconds
B. The client who is 32 weeks gestation with terbutaline (Brethine) intravenously
C. The one-day postpartum client who has changed two peri-pads in the last 6 hours
D. The diabetic obstetric client with a blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL
The client who is 32 weeks gestation receiving Brethrine is unstable and requires further nursing assessment. Answer A is incorrect because the client who is 40 weeks gestation having contractions every 5 minutes lasting 50 seconds is normal. Answer C is incorrect because changing two peripads in the last 6 hours is normal; therefore, it is not highest priority. Answer D is incorrect because a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is within normal limits.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Acetylcysteine
B. Deferoxamine
C. Calcium disodium acetate
D. British anti-lewisite
Deferoxamine is the antidote for iron poisoning. Answer A is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose, making it wrong. Answers C and D are antidotes for lead poisoning, so they are wrong.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Hyperacute graft rejection is due to chronic inflammation and scaring.
B. Hyperacute graft rejection is a cellular response that occurs 1–3 weeks after transplantation.
C. Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely in clients who have received multiple blood transfusions.
D. Hyperacute graft rejection is managed by use of immunosuppressive medications.
Hyperacute graft rejection is more likely to occur in clients who receive a transplant from a donor with an ABO type different from their own, in those with a history of multiple blood transfusions, those with multiple pregnancies, or those with a previous transplant. Answers A and D are incorrect because they describe chronic graft rejection. Answer B describes acute graft rejection; therefore, it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Urinary output
B. Respirations
C. Temperature
D. Verbal responsiveness
Answer B is correct. Barbiturate overdose results in central nervous system depression, which leads to respiratory failure. Answers A and C are important to the client’s overall condition but are not specific to the question, so they are incorrect. The use of barbiturates results in slow, slurred speech, so answer D is expected, and therefore incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Reduces spasticity
B. Skeletal muscle relaxation
C. Immune suppression
D. Prevents viral infections
The drug Baclofen (Lioresal) might also improve bowel and bladder function. Answers B, C, and D do not refer to the drug Lioresal, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Private room or cohort client
B. Personal respiratory protection device
C. Private room with negative airflow pressure
D. Mask worn by staff when the client needs to leave the room
Meningitis is transmitted by droplet infection. Precautions for this disease include a private room or cohort client and the use of a standard precaution mask. Private negative airflow pressure rooms and personal respiratory protection devices are required for clients with airborne diseases such as tuberculosis. When appropriate, a mask must be worn by the client and not the staff when the client leaves the room.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Take half the dose to control the problem
B. Take cough medication to control the problem
C. Stop the medication
D. Report the problem to the doctor
A hacking cough is a common side effect and should be reported to the doctor. The client should not be told to half the dose because this can result in an elevated blood pressure, so answer A is incorrect. Answer B is incorrect because taking a cough medication will mask the symptom of a possible allergic reaction. Answer C is incorrect because, although the client stops taking the medication, this answer states that the client can report the finding to the doctor at the time of the scheduled visit. She should report this finding immediately.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Prepare the child for surgery
B. Document the finding only
C. Notify the physician
D. Palpate the child’s abdomen
The passage of a soft formed brown stool is an indication that the intussusception is resolving. Answer A is incorrect because the condition is resolving without surgery. Answer B is incorrect because the physician should be notified in addition to documenting the finding. Answer D is incorrect because the nurse should not palpate the abdomen of a child recovering from intussusception.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Metabolic alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis
D. Respiratory acidosis
The client with anorexia nervosa is in a state of negative nitrogen balance. She is likely experiencing metabolic acidosis. Answer A is incorrect because metabolic alkalosis is reflected as an increase in HCO3. Clients with anorexia will show a deficit in HCO3. Answers C and D are incorrect because anorexia nervosa clients have a metabolic disorder, not a respiratory disorder
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Constriction of blood flow
B. Immobilization of the joint
C. Formation of a decubitus ulcer
D. Oozing of blood from the wound
Wrapping an elastic bandage on a stump using the circular technique can cause the wrap to act as a tourniquet and restrict blood flow, so a figure eight technique is utilized to prevent this from occurring. Answers B, C, and D are not the primary reasons for use of the figure eight technique, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A.The client identifies two personal behaviors that alienate others.
B.The client attends and participates in morning goal-setting activities.
C.The client eats in the cafeteria with other clients from the unit.
D.The client identifies one or two positive self-attributes.
An increase in the client’s self-esteem is evidenced by the fact that he/she can recognize positive self attributes. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect an increase in self-esteem.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Obtain an IV controller
B. Check the client’s vital signs hourly
C. Check the sodium level
D. Obtain an 18-gauge cathlon to begin the infusion
If potassium is added to IV fluids, a controller is required because a too-rapid infusion of potassium can lead to cardiac arrhythmias. Answer B is incorrect only because there is no data to indicate that hourly vital signs should be obtained. Answer C is incorrect because the client has an order for D51/2NS, which is the same in saline as the client’s normal sodium level. Answer D is incorrect because an 18-gauge cathlon is not required. The nurse can use any size cathlon for this infusion.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Severe headache
B. Slight nausea
C. Decreased urination
D. Itching
A severe headache can indicate impending seizure activity. Slight nausea is expected when beginning the therapy, so answer B is incorrect. A client with renal failure already has itching and decreased urination, so answers C and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Aplastic
B. Vaso-occlusive
C. Splenic sequestration
D. Erythropoiesis
Erythropoiesis is the formation of RBCs not related to sickle cell crisis. The answers in A, B, and C are types of sickle cell anemia crises, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Kayexalate (sodium polystyrene sulfonate)
B. K-Dur (potassium chloride)
C. Cephulac (lactulose)
D. PhosLo (calcium acetate)
Kayexalate (sodium polystyrene sulfonate) is administered to lower potassium levels in the client with hyperkalemia. K-Dur is used for the client with hypokalemia; therefore, answer B is incorrect. Lactulose is used to lower ammonia levels in the client with liver disease; therefore, answer C is incorrect. PhosLo is used to lower phosphorus levels in the client with renal disease; therefore, Answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Leg cramps
B. Hot flashes
C. Urinary frequency
D. Cold extremities
This drug is in the same category as the chemotherapeutic agent tamoxifene (Novaldex) used for breast cancer. In the case of Evista, this drug is used to treat osteoporosis. Notice that the E stands for estrogen. This drug has an agonist effect, so it binds with estrogen and can cause hot flashes. This drug does not cause leg cramps, urinary frequency, or cold extremities, so answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A
You are working on the 3pm-11pm shift. Estimate the patients 8 hour intake when administered with the following: IVF @ 25cc/hr continuous; TPN @ 50cc/hr continuous; Lipids at 10cc/hr for 12 hours (8pm-8am); NGT feeds @ 25 cc/hr continuous; 2 units of blood – 250ml/unit – first unit at 10am/ second unit at 4pm; IV Vancomycin – 250ml every 12 hours at 8am/8pm.
REMEMBER: cc = mL
IVF = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
TPN = 50 mL x 8 hours = 400 mL
Lipids = 10 mL x 3 hours (consider only 3hours 8pm-11pm as shift ends at 11pm) = 30 mL
NGT feeds = 25 mL x 8 hours = 200 mL
Blood - x1 unit given at 4pm included in 3pm-11pm shift = 250 mL
IV Vancomycin = 250 mL (given at 8pm, 8am shift not included)
TOTAL INTAKE = 1330 mLs
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Five minutes
B. Thirty minutes
C. Ninety minutes
D. Four hours
NPH insulin onset is 90–120 minutes. Answer A is incorrect because Novalog insulin onset is 5–10 minutes. B is incorrect because regular insulin onset is 15–30 minutes. D is incorrect and is not associated with the onset of any insulin.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Waterpik
B. Wire cutter
C. Humidifier
D. Oral rinse
Wire cutters must be at the bedside at all times to decrease the risk of aspiration with vomiting. Answers A and D are usually used in the care of clients with a fractured mandible, but are not as essential as the wire cutters, so they are incorrect. The answer in C is not a usual piece of equipment for clients with fractured mandibles, so it is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Constipation
B. White blood cell count of 14,000
C. Amylase of 460
D. Potassium of 3.1 mEq/L
Amylase and lipase are reliable tests used for pancreatitis diagnosis. The answers in A, B, and D are not directly related to the pancreas and not diagnostic, so they are incorrect.
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