Demo Quiz
Welcome to the Demo Quiz! Below, you will find numerous sample questions. This demo quiz is set up with questions and the question's answer with Answer reason.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Gloves and gown
B. Gloves and goggles
C. Gloves, gown, and shoe protectors
D. Gloves, gown, goggles, and a mask or face shield
Splashes of body secretions can occur when providing colostomy care. Goggles and a mask or face shield are worn to protect the face and mucous membranes of the eyes during interventions that may produce splashes of blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions. In addition, contact precautions require the use of gloves, and a gown should be worn if direct client contact is anticipated. Shoe protectors are not necessary.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Amevive (alefacept)
B. Folex (methotrexate)
C. Famvir (famciclovir)
D. Raptiva (efalizumab)
Famvir (famciclovir), an antiviral medication, is used to shorten the outbreak of herpes zoster. Amevive, Folex, and Raptiva are used in the treatment of the client with psoriasis; therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option A, Option B, Option C
A. Ingestion of contaminated undercooked meat or deer flies
B. Inhalation of bacterial spores
C. Through a cut or abrasion in the skin
D. Direct contact with an infected individual
Answer: A,B,C
Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis and can be contracted through the digestive system or abrasions in the skin, or inhaled through the lungs. It cannot be spread from person to person, and it is not contracted via bites from ticks or deer flies.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Diarrheal illness caused by salmonella
B. Routine childhood immunization
C. Eruption of primary teeth
D. Otitis media
Facial cellulitis is associated with otitis media, a common ear infection in young children. Answers A, B, and C are not associated with the development of facial cellulitis; therefore, they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Tuna sandwich, pickle spear, potato chips, and iced tea
B. Ham slice, tossed salad with dressing, gelatin, and coffee
C. Tomato soup, crackers, peanut butter sandwich, and milk
D. Hamburger steak, baked potato, lima beans, and milk
The client with nephrotic syndrome needs a diet with complete proteins and restricted sodium. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they contain high-sodium foods.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Rhythmic respirations with periods of apnea
B. Regular rapid and deep, sustained respirations
C. Totally irregular respiration in rhythm and depth
D. Irregular respirations with pauses at the end of inspiration and expiration
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are rhythmic respirations with periods of apnea and can indicate a metabolic dysfunction in the cerebral hemisphere or basal ganglia. Neurogenic hyperventilation is a regular, rapid and deep, sustained respiration that can indicate a dysfunction in the low midbrain and middle pons. Ataxic respirations are totally irregular in rhythm and depth and indicate a dysfunction in the medulla. Apneustic respirations are irregular respirations with pauses at the end of inspiration and expiration and can indicate a dysfunction in the middle or caudal pons.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Stabilize clots in the vascular system
B. Decrease the chance of a blood reaction
C. Eliminate iron excess
D. Boost oxygen delivery to the cells
A chelating agent such as deferoxamine (Desferal) is given to eliminate excess iron. The answers in A, B, and D are not the action of chelating agents, so they are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. Celestone
B. Dopamine
C. Serotonin
D. Anti-diuretic hormone
The neurotransmitter dopamine is missing in clients with Parkinson’s disease. Most of the treatment involves replacement of this drug. Answer A is a steroid. Answer C is a neurotransmitter not missing in Parkinson’s disease, and Answer D is secreted by the pituitary gland not related to the stated diagnosis; therefore Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The correct way to perform postural drainage
B. The preparation and use of isotonic enemas
C. The collection of a specimen using the tape test
D. The use of pinwheels and suckers to improve speech
The parents of a child with Hirschsprung’s disease should be taught how to prepare and administer isotonic enemas. Answers A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not relate to the care of the child with Hirschsprung’s disease.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. 100 ml
B. 300 ml
C. 500 ml
D. 700 ml
Fluid intake for the client with acute glomerulonephritis is limited to urinary output plus 500 mL to 600 mL. Answers A and B are incorrect because the intake is too limited. Answer D is incorrect because the intake is excessive.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Frontal lobe
B. Occipital lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Parietal lobe
Partial seizures usually originate in the temporal lobe, making Answers A, B, and D incorrect because partial seizures do not usually occur in the other lobes.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. “I need to avoid certain foods and drinks to prevent an increase in blood pressure.”
B. “I will schedule an appointment each month to have my blood level checked.”
C. “I will use hard candy or gum to keep my mouth from feeling too dry.”
D. “I will need to take my medicine before meals to improve its effect.”
Dry mouth is a common side effect of antidepressant medications. Using hard candy or gum helps to prevent mouth dryness. Answer A is incorrect because it refers to treatment with MAOI. Answer B is incorrect because it refers to treatment with lithium. Answer D is incorrect because taking the medication with food enhances the absorption rate of the medication.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
The client who is taking lithium needs an adequate intake of sodium and fluid to prevent the development of lithium toxicity. Answers B, C, and D are incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option C
A. Negligence
B. Tort
C. Assault
D. Malpractice
Assault is defined as striking or touching the client inappropriately. Negligence is failing to perform care for the client, so answer A is incorrect. A tort is a wrongful act committed on the client or his belongings, so answer B is incorrect. Malpractice is failing to perform an act that the nurse knows should be done or doing something wrong that causes harm to the client, so answer D is incorrect.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. The client who is 40 weeks gestation having contractions every 5 minutes lasting 50 seconds
B. The client who is 32 weeks gestation with terbutaline (Brethine) intravenously
C. The one-day postpartum client who has changed two peri-pads in the last 6 hours
D. The diabetic obstetric client with a blood glucose level of 90 mg/dL
The client who is 32 weeks gestation receiving Brethrine is unstable and requires further nursing assessment. Answer A is incorrect because the client who is 40 weeks gestation having contractions every 5 minutes lasting 50 seconds is normal. Answer C is incorrect because changing two peripads in the last 6 hours is normal; therefore, it is not highest priority. Answer D is incorrect because a blood glucose of 90 mg/dL is within normal limits.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Autograft
B. Isograft
C. Allograft
D. Xenograft
Xenografts are taken from animal sources. Answers A, B, and C are incorrect because they originate from human donors.
The Correct Answer is Option D
A. Ambu bag
B. IV controller
C. Bit drill
D. Torque screwdriver
This equipment is necessary in case the pins become loose. The family should also be instructed in this before discharge for home care. The answers in A, B, and C are not necessary are appropriate due to a halo vest application.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. LDH
B. Troponin
C. Creatinine
D. AST
The best diagnostic tool for confirming that the client has experienced a myocardial infarction is the troponin level. Another lab value associated with a myocardial infarction is the CKMB. Answer A is incorrect because the LDH is also elevated in clients with muscle trauma not associated with an MI. Answer C is incorrect because the creatinine level indicates renal function. Answer D is incorrect because the AST level is elevated with gallbladder and liver disease as well as muscle inflammation.
The Correct Answer is Option A
A. Blood or body fluid exposure to the virus
B. Emptying her cat’s litter box
C. Contaminated food or water
D. Pigeon feces
Cytomegalovirus virus is transmitted predominantly by blood or body fluid exposure to the virus. Answer B is incorrect, toxoplasmosis is transmitted through contaminated cat feces. Answer C is incorrect because contaminated food or water can cause many illnesses; for example, E. coli, listeria, Clostridium difficile, and many others. Answer D is incorrect because histoplasmosis is transmitted by bird feces.
The Correct Answer is Option B
A. One to two weeks after surgery
B. Four to six weeks after surgery
C. Six months after surgery
D. One year after surgery
The final best vision will not be present until four to six weeks following cataract removal. Answer A is incorrect because sufficient healing has not taken place. Answers C and D are incorrect because the best vision is present four to six weeks after surger
Please fill this form to further take Demo Quiz.
College of Nursing Education & Training Australia acknowledges the Traditional Owners of the country throughout Australia and recognises their continuing connection to land, waters and culture. We pay our respects to Elders past, present and emerging
NCLEX-P ®, NCLEX-RN® are registered trademarks of the National Council of State Boards of Nursing, Inc (NCSBN ®) College of Nursing Education & Training Australia is neither endorsed by nor affiliated with AHPRA. None of the trademark holders is affiliated with, and does not endorse, College of Nursing Education & Training Australia Products.
